Have a friend that just had a felony DUI where the officers claim the other party was injured. I have spoken with witnesses that stated it is very hard to believe the other party was injured at all and judging but the damage to the cars is was highly unlikely. From what I understand, the officers that filed the charges may have already dropped that part of it. Also, my friend was not under the influence and submitted to a blood test. The only reason the officers charged him with this is because there was a bottle of pain pills in his car that were not his. They fell out of a friend's purse and the script is legal and not one pill was missing. The question is, this guy has two prior DUI's after a divorce in No. California three years ago. Will they attempt to go harder on him because of this? The only thing in his blood would be minor trace amounts of Valium because he takes them to help him sleep at times. From what I understand they can still charge him for that and the 11350 of the HS for the pills even if the woman they belong to testifies they were hers and filled the script ten minutes before he picked her up. Is this true? Lastly, this guy has had a drug problem in the past and as a result has a burglary offense 25 years ago that was a conviction and one 15 years ago that was also a conviction but he did CRC time on and is now showing as a dismissal. Can this be a third strike?