Your original questions:
So my questions are: Can he legally claim unemployment in a case like that even thought he probably already excepted the job? Does he have any right to my mother's inheritance? My mother is entitled to some of the money if his investment in Asia pays off, is there any way of insuring that? I appreciate the feedback because my mother is my only support in this world as I am attending college with no help from my father what so ever. Thanks.
The "I appreciate the feedback because my mother is my only support in this world as I am attending college with no help from my father what so ever. Thanks." (BTW...it's "whatsoever" but I digress...) comment certainly comes across as though it is more that you are concerned with getting your hands in the coffers not your actual concern for your mother's welfare.
So, let me see if I've got this right...it's NOT okay for him to claim unemployment (which, by the way, even if he has accepted--yes, it's accepted, not "excepted"--a position, but has either not begun employment--or received any payment--is entitled to) or hide assets...I do agree that hiding assets is a nefarious action, but one that is done with some frequency, so unless you can prove where and how much (and that they were in existence prior to the final decree--in that he's perjured himself by not disclosing all assets) then Mum is out of luck as far as his "investments in Asia". If however, she has already been granted a portion (but you said "if his investment in Asia pays off"???) then if he does not hold up to his promise, he would be in contempt. It is the "IF" portion that bothers me... that seems to place the burden of proof of profit on your Mum... then is it a profit 1 year down the road...5...10??? Does your Mum even have an attorney for her divorce?
Now, the inheritance. You do not give a specific time frame of events. Also, I have a question. This "final decree" that you mention...was this a final hearing with a judge or was it a "final" mediation meeting between the parties to come to an agreed order that both must sign to submit to have it officially entered into record?? Because this can potentially make a difference. Most likely since they'd already been separated for two years, a judge would not grant him a portion of the inheritance. That said, I stand by my original reply...
"It seems to me that your father simply wanted to walk away and be finished without alimony that can go on for years and years...it doesn't seem likely to me that he'd risk that for a one-time payment from an inheritance. In my opinion anyway." I don't think he'd want to frustrate the process further since he is already now employed and most likely not wanting to risk reopening the case, and thus opening himself to alimony.
Now as far as my being "bitter", that is hardly the case. I am simply a realist providing feedback based upon your very own words in the original post. Perhaps you should go back and reread it for tone and content from an objective POV.
