You/your brother/whomever you are, use the term fraud a whole lot. Nothing you indicate sounds remotely like fraud. If one of the doctors was truly treating in an inappropriate manner and against standard of care, you/he/the patient, might have a malpractice claim. If you/he/the patient didn't like a particular doctor or feel that the doctor was serving your/his needs, then you/he find another one. Happens every day.
You are absolutely correct. The words "fraud" and "malpractice" have been mistakenly used interchangeably by us. To clarify, these are some of the variables my brother has had to deal with:
1) A psychiatrist prescribed my brother bad pills, then more bad pills to deal with the side effects of the original bad pills. Things go downhill fast, and the psychiatrist doesn't show any "good faith" by continuing to helping him, even after he reports multiple attempted suicides to the psychiatrist. Here my brother feels that actual fraud may be involved, as there may be an alterior motive and/or wreckless malace or indifference to my brother's situation.
2) A bad supervisor in an unsafe previous work environment coerces my brother into not filing a workers' compensation claim on his back. This sounds like fraud right on the face of it. The lack of filing lends itself to there being no job site analysis, which mixed with an unsafe work environment, causes my brother's recently incurred on-the-job injuries to relapse again after going back to "full duty" when the temporary work restrictions lifted.
3) A bad family chiropractor treats my brother for the back and hip injuries that he had recently incurred on the job. The chiropractor misdiagnoses the injuries as non-job-related though, thus further lending to there being no job site analysis. Here it just looks like medical malpractice.
ElleMD said:
The law actually prohibits employer from acting without verification of a diagnosed disability as it would be considered regarding someone as disabled. The burden is always on the employee to seek the accommodation and provide proof of its existence. An old note from a doctor who is no longer treating an employee is not adequate. If the employee can not produce a single note from any current doctor, the employer has no duty to accommodate. Why you would think the employer has a greater burden than even the employee themselves to seek a diagnosis and prove a disability is unfathomable.
This makes perfect sense, however it would be much appreciated if a deeper point could be clarified on the subject:
Basically, what I cannot figure out, is "if the employee cannot produce a single note from any current doctor" as you say, but is given time to obtain a note, exactly how much time should be given to him? I mean, according to a paper I recently found by the ADA (eeoc[dot]gov/policy/docs/guidance-inquiries.html) they state that "if an employee provides insufficient documentation in response to the employer's initial request, the employer should explain why the documentation is insufficient and allow the employee an opportunity to provide the missing information in a timely manner." Here, the words "timely manner" are where I get tripped up. If the employee cannot provide documentation in a "timely manner" does that mean they have to just keep on working while being injured? Does the employer get to keep on employing them, indefinitely and without liability, while knowing they are being injured (through at the very least, their persistent complaints of hurting while on the job because of the lack of any accommodations)?
What further confuses me is a different paper I recently found by the ADA (eeoc[dot]gov/policy/docs/workcomp.html) where the question gets asked: "under the ADA, is a rehabilitation counselor, physician, or other specialist responsible for deciding whether an employee with a disability-related occupational injury is ready to return to work?" And the answer the ADA gave for that question was "No. The employer bears the ultimate responsibility for deciding whether an employee with a disability-related occupational injury is ready to return to work. Therefore, the employer, rather than a rehabilitation counselor, physician, or other specialist, must determine whether the employee can perform the essential functions of the job, with or without reasonable accommodation, or can work without posing a direct threat."
So, when I read these statements, I can only imagine that the employer is at the very least, liable for not reporting a continuous on-the-job injury? Perhaps where they became liable was after the definition of a "timely manner" had passed -- whatever that may be?
ElleMD said:
Where you/he even got the notion that a split keyboard and special mouse would mitigate the symptoms is confusing. If no medical treatment was sought and no doctor ever evaluated the wrists or made recommendations, how do you/he know that this particular solution would have worked? Marketing ads for those products? CT can also be caused by many other ailments.
That's a very good question! My brother did
not know for sure that split keyboard and ergonomic mouse would successfully accommodate his wrist problems. He just figured it was a good place to start as the current workstation setup was causing him pain? After filing workers' compensation on his wrists though, a split keyboard and ergonomic mouse was specifically what he was given, so I suppose he was at least on the right track for what he thought he might need.
Basically, from what I can gather thus far, my brother wasn't able to figure out how to get "sufficient documentation" in a "timely manner" to prove his occupational injury related
disabilities under the ADA, but that perhaps going that direction he was actually barking up the wrong tree, and should have been approaching the situation from a
workers' compensation angle. I mean, both his back and wrist injuries were strictly work related, and not necessarily disability related. And so even though the ADA does concern itself with occupational injuries if they deem a person "disabled" under their definition, we're both thinking now that perhaps my brother should have just filed a separate workers' compensation claim on his back, during the period of time that it wasn't accommodated. (Side note, I asked him why, and he said he had already filed a workers' compensation claim on his back for the previous employer, but because he filed so late, they claimed it wasn't work related.. and so he never even thought to file another workers' compensation claim under the current employer because he thought it wasn't current-employer-related). But by filing his wrists again, this time as a current-employer-related injury (albeit quite late into his issues) he was at least able to finally prove he had wrist problems enough to get accommodated. If only he had done the same for his back in time, perhaps his workers' compensation doctor could have caught his injuries sooner, had a more complete idea of what was going on, and even possibly be able prescribe work restrictions that could have minimized the number of absences incurred thereafter. (Side note, my brother is still within the two year filing window for his back, and is considering taking that approach, but would like any advice on the subject if there's any to give).
So... I think the question of questions is, can my brother's most recent employer legally claim they "didn't know" about his disabilities (because of his lack of documentation) but still be liable for not reporting his continuous on-the-job injuries (that they couldn't reasonably deny were being incurred simply because of how many times my brother repeately told them that their non-accommodations were causing him further injury, as well as his job performance constantly suffering as a result)?
Even though my brother didn't know how to approach getting help for his back, I just don't understand how an employer can sit back and say "oh, well we didn't have to get him an ergonomic workstation because he couldn't prove that he was disabled" when my brother literally told them, almost on a daily basis, not so much that he was disabled, but that he was simply being further injured!
It just feels like they hid behind the ADA law (that they had no reasonable documentation) to basically not follow workers' compensation law (and report an on-the-job injury). Oh, and I should note, that they knew specifically that a non-ergonomic workstation causes "problems" by their evidence of a one-page handout they gave my brother when he first started working. Very ironic, and kind of insulting I think, that they would give a handout admitting their knowledge that non-ergonomic workstations can cause problems, but then not believe an employee who goes to them complaining that their non-ergonomic workstations are causing them problems! This scenario just sounds ridiculous -- ADA, disability, and reasonable documentation completly aside.
ElleMD said:
The employer does not have a crystal ball.
Just reitering the main point. Even though his employer doesn't have a crystal ball, they did have his testimony and persistent complaints of pain. Is that not enough to justify doing something? Where does the liability rest when an employee comes to an employer reporting on-the-job injuries, but doesn't exactly know how to word that?
Thank you again, and to anyone else, that is able to help sort some of this stuff out! Both my brother and I are deeply grateful that we have been able to figure out so much so far.