I am separated with a pending divorce. I went to mediation the other day and the mediator (who is not a lawyer) said something which my father and I don't believe to be true.
Here is the situation:
When I married my wife, I moved into a home in her name only from her first marriage. It was a home we could not afford and we accumulated alot of debt while living there as a couple.
We sold the house in 2004 after living there for four years and used equity from the sale to pay off all of our debts. We purchased another home in 2006 using my $23,000 inheritance. She moved out in June 2007 and left me in the home and my son has been living with me since.
At mediation, she demanded I pay her $4000 for her to sign off on the deed. There is no equity in the home because I had to refinance it into my own name in late 2007 as a means to reduce the mortgage payment and avoid foreclosure.
She said I still owe her for the money she used to pay off our debt in 2004.
The mediator said I am liable for this debt. Is that true?
Here is the situation:
When I married my wife, I moved into a home in her name only from her first marriage. It was a home we could not afford and we accumulated alot of debt while living there as a couple.
We sold the house in 2004 after living there for four years and used equity from the sale to pay off all of our debts. We purchased another home in 2006 using my $23,000 inheritance. She moved out in June 2007 and left me in the home and my son has been living with me since.
At mediation, she demanded I pay her $4000 for her to sign off on the deed. There is no equity in the home because I had to refinance it into my own name in late 2007 as a means to reduce the mortgage payment and avoid foreclosure.
She said I still owe her for the money she used to pay off our debt in 2004.
The mediator said I am liable for this debt. Is that true?
