Does harassment require 'intent'?
My HR agrees that I have been the victim of inappropriate behavior for many years.
But HR claims without proof the behavior was directed at me there is no harassment
I have pointed out the guideline from the EEOC;
"The victim does not have to be the person harassed, but can be anyone affected by the offensive conduct."
This would seem to contradict the 'intent to harass' requirement
I have also pointed out company training that contradicts the 'intent to harass' requirement
I followed all company rules to have harassment stopped and it did not stop.
I belive that intent can be inferred from behavior. I believe this is called 'implied malice'.
HR refuses to address my points.
Am I correct?
Thank you for your time.
My HR agrees that I have been the victim of inappropriate behavior for many years.
But HR claims without proof the behavior was directed at me there is no harassment
I have pointed out the guideline from the EEOC;
"The victim does not have to be the person harassed, but can be anyone affected by the offensive conduct."
This would seem to contradict the 'intent to harass' requirement
I have also pointed out company training that contradicts the 'intent to harass' requirement
I followed all company rules to have harassment stopped and it did not stop.
I belive that intent can be inferred from behavior. I believe this is called 'implied malice'.
HR refuses to address my points.
Am I correct?
Thank you for your time.