My boyfriend suffered a stroke on July 29. He is currently on FMLA until the end of October.
He has been cleared to work PT (computer-only stuff), and typically worked out of our house when he was not on the road for work. His employer is based out of Phoenix AZ, but they have techs all over the country that work for them.
Anyway, his employer says they cannot accomodate him doing PT computer work from our house, even though there is plenty he could do to help the other techs.
They said in an email that basically because he doesn't work in the Arizona office that they can't accomodate him.
So the way we read it, is, if he lived in Arizona and could go into the office, they would accomodate him.
Isn't that discrimination? If they allowed him to work out of our house for over 4 years, why now the change?
He has been cleared to work PT (computer-only stuff), and typically worked out of our house when he was not on the road for work. His employer is based out of Phoenix AZ, but they have techs all over the country that work for them.
Anyway, his employer says they cannot accomodate him doing PT computer work from our house, even though there is plenty he could do to help the other techs.
They said in an email that basically because he doesn't work in the Arizona office that they can't accomodate him.
So the way we read it, is, if he lived in Arizona and could go into the office, they would accomodate him.
Isn't that discrimination? If they allowed him to work out of our house for over 4 years, why now the change?
