BigDaddyJinx
New Member
Greetings. I have a quick question about a possible breach of contract situation. Of the few I've spoken with so far, the concensus is that yes, it's breach, but I like as many opinions (qualified and otherwise) as possible.
The scenario is quite simple. Employer gets employee to sign a severance agreement. Contained in the agreement is the premise/mention/stipulation/etc that unused vacation time would be paid out as well. Vacation time wasn't paid out - in fact was deliberately withheld citing "no need to pay". We had to pursue them through a third party Government agency to get them compelled to pay these monies owed.
Does that, or does that not constitute breach of contract (on behalf of the Employer)?
Any feedback welcome.
The scenario is quite simple. Employer gets employee to sign a severance agreement. Contained in the agreement is the premise/mention/stipulation/etc that unused vacation time would be paid out as well. Vacation time wasn't paid out - in fact was deliberately withheld citing "no need to pay". We had to pursue them through a third party Government agency to get them compelled to pay these monies owed.
Does that, or does that not constitute breach of contract (on behalf of the Employer)?
Any feedback welcome.
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