My husband and I went through a very messy divorce a few years back, with two children from the marriage. The custody arrangement was non-formal for a year or so. Last year, they formalized it through courts and mediation. He wasn't happy with it, and ended up causing a lot of pain for us through falsified and baseless claims to Child Protective Services. This fall he decided to go for more custody, and got it. However, there's one part that is rather vague and undefined.
Per the agreement, I am to provide him with reasonable access to the children. Since he lives hours away (he moved away from us), it comes in the forms of phone calls. Now, according to his lawyer, whenever he calls (once a night) I have to put the children on the phone, even if they've already fallen asleep. Some nights we aren't home to hear him call, and some nights he doesn't call at all. However, whenever such a night occurs, we get a letter from his lawyer threatening to petition for contempt of court. Within the past month, we've received three such letters for five missed days of communication.
Is this normal? What exactly is "reasonable access" defined as when it comes to phonecalls?
Thanks.
Per the agreement, I am to provide him with reasonable access to the children. Since he lives hours away (he moved away from us), it comes in the forms of phone calls. Now, according to his lawyer, whenever he calls (once a night) I have to put the children on the phone, even if they've already fallen asleep. Some nights we aren't home to hear him call, and some nights he doesn't call at all. However, whenever such a night occurs, we get a letter from his lawyer threatening to petition for contempt of court. Within the past month, we've received three such letters for five missed days of communication.
Is this normal? What exactly is "reasonable access" defined as when it comes to phonecalls?
Thanks.