Hi there. I'm representing myself pro se tommorrow and have a couple of points that my own research has not bore fruit on:
I believe that my lease agreement is/was void because it was not signed by the dealer / agent of the finance company (or anybody, for that matter...) There is verbage on the contract to that effect. Am I correct in my assertion that the contract is void because of this oversight?
Also on the contract is a binding arbitration agreement, if the magistrate deems the contract is enforceable and does not 'see things our way' as far as agreements that were made with the finance company after the inception of the note-- When is it too late to move to dismiss based on that binding arbitration? (Not the best way out-- It would be dismissed without prejudice I think)
Thanks.
I believe that my lease agreement is/was void because it was not signed by the dealer / agent of the finance company (or anybody, for that matter...) There is verbage on the contract to that effect. Am I correct in my assertion that the contract is void because of this oversight?
Also on the contract is a binding arbitration agreement, if the magistrate deems the contract is enforceable and does not 'see things our way' as far as agreements that were made with the finance company after the inception of the note-- When is it too late to move to dismiss based on that binding arbitration? (Not the best way out-- It would be dismissed without prejudice I think)
Thanks.