I hope someone can help me with this one. I live in Florida, and was divorced from my ex husband in 2001. My ex kept our home, but it was ordered in the final judgment that we were to divide the proceeds 50/50 if and when it was ever sold. Well, he did sell the home, but did not give me my share of the proceeds. Of course I am taking legal action to recover my share. However, in my research I have learned that he refinanced twice during the four year period between the divorce and the time he sold the home. Both times he borrowed on equity in the home...resulting in him receiving more than $160,000 to put in his own pocket. The second time he did this it was to obtain a $71,000 downpayment on his new home, and it was done AFTER he had a buyer for our marital home, so it was taken directly out of the expected profit from the sale.
Was I entitled to a portion of the money from either of those deals since there was profit involved? I have copies of everything, and can prove that he received large sums of money from the equity in the home.
I have a mediation with him and his lawyer on Jan 17th, so ANY advice would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks
Was I entitled to a portion of the money from either of those deals since there was profit involved? I have copies of everything, and can prove that he received large sums of money from the equity in the home.
I have a mediation with him and his lawyer on Jan 17th, so ANY advice would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks