Verbal Agreements in a Marriage

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DumbA

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My spouse and I agreed when we got married that until he was able to land a lucrative deal, that I would pay the majority of our debt because I made more money. Due to my spouses poor money managing skills, I ended up paying a lot more than just our expenses, over 12,000 in 3years of personal loans.

He agreed throughout our marriage that he would take care of all debt and money i lent him. I have proof to show that I paid the majority of our debt and that there was very little money paid by my spouse.

I am now in the process of separating from my spouse and he is not agreeing to include our verbal agreement in our separation agreement.

Would a verbal agreement like this be valid or stand up?

Would I end up having to pay 1/2 our joint debt?
 
I hope you have a lawyer, because IMO you need one.

If you and your husband never commingled your money, and if the loans and other debts were used only by your husband for his benefit, then you may be able to avoid paying half of the debt.

The verbal agreement will be hard to prove if your husband denies it. Also, if the assets and debts are considered marital, it may not matter whether he agreed to that or not.
 
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