My spouse and I agreed when we got married that until he was able to land a lucrative deal, that I would pay the majority of our debt because I made more money. Due to my spouses poor money managing skills, I ended up paying a lot more than just our expenses, over 12,000 in 3years of personal loans.
He agreed throughout our marriage that he would take care of all debt and money i lent him. I have proof to show that I paid the majority of our debt and that there was very little money paid by my spouse.
I am now in the process of separating from my spouse and he is not agreeing to include our verbal agreement in our separation agreement.
Would a verbal agreement like this be valid or stand up?
Would I end up having to pay 1/2 our joint debt?
He agreed throughout our marriage that he would take care of all debt and money i lent him. I have proof to show that I paid the majority of our debt and that there was very little money paid by my spouse.
I am now in the process of separating from my spouse and he is not agreeing to include our verbal agreement in our separation agreement.
Would a verbal agreement like this be valid or stand up?
Would I end up having to pay 1/2 our joint debt?