I have been on FMLA since the first of December 2013. My husband had open heart surgery. I was given all of my accrued sick pay but I have been told I was not entitled to my 18 days of vacation for 2014 until I came to work for 1 day. Is this true?
I have been on FMLA since the first of December 2013. My husband had open heart surgery. I was given all of my accrued sick pay but I have been told I was not entitled to my 18 days of vacation for 2014 until I came to work for 1 day. Is this true?
I've heard of this kind of policy, especially with employers who grant in a lump sum. They want to make sure the employee actually works some portion of the year before paying out a bunch of vacation only to have the employee quit once they get paid for all their days. I personally find it to be more or less worthless as a rule, but it is legal. You can ask if FMLA allows them to make an exception but the answer may be that it does not matter.