During my marriage to my wife. My exMother-in-law had agreed to lend me her credit to lease a new car. Of which i had always made my payments on time with records to prove it. During the separation she decided to take the car away from me since i was no longer with her daughter. In the trade-in process there was an upside down value of $5,000. She (mother-in-law) is now trying to sue me for the value on the upcoming divorce.
my question is: If the car was never under my name,... will i be entitled to having to pay back the upside value?!?.. Wouldn't the fact that she took the car away from me, clear me of having to pay back the value?!?
we never had either a written nor verbal agreement ever stating that i was to pay that upside value..
my question is: If the car was never under my name,... will i be entitled to having to pay back the upside value?!?.. Wouldn't the fact that she took the car away from me, clear me of having to pay back the value?!?
we never had either a written nor verbal agreement ever stating that i was to pay that upside value..
