irishhope81
New Member
my question is...
lets say someone knew that a woman had committed adultery. this person told the husband what he knew, despite not having any physical evidence of the adulterous act. the husband then told his wife what this person had said and the wife has threatened to file suit against that person for slander/defamation. is this possible? assume that the person also told another party in addition to the husband. And the communication was via text messaging and/or email. is there a case for slander here?
lets say someone knew that a woman had committed adultery. this person told the husband what he knew, despite not having any physical evidence of the adulterous act. the husband then told his wife what this person had said and the wife has threatened to file suit against that person for slander/defamation. is this possible? assume that the person also told another party in addition to the husband. And the communication was via text messaging and/or email. is there a case for slander here?