Ownership by occupation

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wahezyxipe

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To whomever it may concern,

I seek information on the concept of 'Ownership by Occupation' (claiming ownership of land after spending extended time on the unclaimed/not owned land using it visibly and premeditatedly): does the practice still exist in any major legal systems, such as United States law, European Continental law, or perchance the Russian legal system?

Thank you in advance!
 
To whomever it may concern,

I seek information on the concept of 'Ownership by Occupation' (claiming ownership of land after spending extended time on the unclaimed/not owned land using it visibly and premeditatedly): does the practice still exist in any major legal systems, such as United States law, European Continental law, or perchance the Russian legal system?

Thank you in advance!

In the US, we call it "adverse possession".

Google, Bing, or Yahoo: "adverse possession YOUR STATE OR COUNTRY".

Lots of good information available at your fingertips.


PS: There is no land that lacks an owner these days. If the land isn't owned by a person, entity, enterprise, or corporation; the government snaps it up, at least in the USA!!!!

You can thank your taxing authorities for that.
 
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This sounds like "might" be homework but maybe not. IP address is foreign. This is something you will have to research for yourself due to all that you need/want to know.
 
It's also more than 2 years old. I'm sure the homework is late by now. :)
Gotta pay extra attention to those dates lately.
 
I thought we were replying to old threads for reference/google purposes. This is how I would have answered.
 
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