Name not on deed but the bank still comes after the ex-spouse?

You won it in the divorce.... Congrats on hitting the jackpot. You could have just stated back then You didn't want the house.

This will require a lawyer to help figure this out. What does your divorce lawyer say?? that would be a great place to start.

 

I suggest you speak to a couple local attorneys about ownership of the home.

Based on your assertions, I can't see how you're responsible for the debt.

However, your former spouse appears to be TRICKY.

He could have placed your name on the documents without your knowledge.

I know less than you do about this situation.

An attorney can help you get to the bottom of this mess.

If you're on the financial hook bankruptcy might be worth considering, again, a lawyer in your area can explain that to you as well.

I'm just another dummy posting on the Internet.

If your name is on the deed or loan paperwork, it'll take a lawyer licensed in your state to fix this for you.

Happy Thanksgiving.

 

That's not accurate. According to you, the court awarded the home to the wife. That most certainly creates an interest. I suspect that what you meant is that the wife has no interest of record (which, if accurate, means that the wife or her lawyer screwed up by failing to record the judgment).

What does "goes after" them mean? "Goes after" them for what? Did someone stop paying the mortgage?

Well...that's kind of the whole point of establishing a lien. However, it's not entirely accurate. The home can be sold; it's just that a sale that does not provide for payment of the mortgage lien will result in the buyer taking the property subject to the existing lien. Who is it that wants to sell the property?

What does "part of the foreclosure" mean? If the mortgage lender is going to foreclose, the ex-wife will be identified as a person with an interest in the property. Whether that will affect her credit remains to be determined.

Who are you in this scenario and why are you asking these questions?

A house? Or the house that was the subject of your original post? When you say that this was the "original intent" does that mean something else ended up happening? If so, what difference does it make what the parties' "original intent" was?

Responsible in what way? If she doesn't want the house foreclosed, then it's her responsibility to ensure that doesn't happen. Otherwise, no.

 

In order to receive a definitive answer, the parties in question need to seek the counsel of live, state licensed attorney near their locales.

Even if an anonymous person from an obscure internet site told you NO, the lien holder or creditor wouldn't care, nor should the creditor care what anonymous sources say.

Again, the female needs to hire an attorney to ensure she don't get bamboozled, flummoxed, or FLEECED any more than she have already been.

 

I can only guess, but I would assume that the mortgage lender is aware of the wife's existence and is assuming a marital interest in the property. Whether the lender is or isn't aware of the divorce decree is anyone's guess.

I don't think this will be very productive. Encourage your friends to retain legal counsel.

I'll ask again: responsible in what regard? Are you asking if she's likely to be hit with a deficiency judgment if the foreclosure sale doesn't generate enough $$ to pay off the mortgage? That probably won't happen if she is not a borrower on the mortgage and any underlying promissory note. Of course, I am doing nothing but speculating based on representations you have made about mortgage documents I haven't seen, so take this for what it's worth and encourage your friends to retain the services of a lawyer.