NJ-- My husband and I are getting ready to get an "irreconcilable differences" divorce after 3 years of marriage. We are both strangely amicable and have divided the property fairly between us with zero disagreements. I am to get our home (which I've paid on the past 16months, put the down payment on) and he's to get his massive 401k (which I practically built for him). I am raising our daughter as primary custodian there. The problem is the the mortgage (which has another 10 years left), is solely in HIS name because I was having credit difficulties at the time of refinance, although I have perfect credit now. I signed a quitclaim dead, etc. Now that we are divorcing, I am TRYING to avoid incurring the massive (2k-3k) fees the mortgage company wants to charge to put the house in my name even though he has offered to absorb this cost.
Does anyone know of a premade document that I can get that states I am and have been financially responsbile for my home and it legally belongs to me regardless that his name is on the mortgage? Would a quitclaim singlehandedly do this? OR, would it be possible to draft such a letter than states this and guarantees he can't claim ownership of the house, and will transfer the title when the mortgage is paid in 10 years? I don't know how amicable we'll be in 10 years.
I am under the impression that if we simply sign off/agree to it in the papers the fact that we have a child together and I am raising her in the house and assuming the financial responsibility of it makes it mine. I DON'T need advice on whether or not the arrangement is fair (trust me it is) or how it will effect his credit (we've discussed this). I simply want to know how (if possible) to do it.
Thanks in advance!
Does anyone know of a premade document that I can get that states I am and have been financially responsbile for my home and it legally belongs to me regardless that his name is on the mortgage? Would a quitclaim singlehandedly do this? OR, would it be possible to draft such a letter than states this and guarantees he can't claim ownership of the house, and will transfer the title when the mortgage is paid in 10 years? I don't know how amicable we'll be in 10 years.
I am under the impression that if we simply sign off/agree to it in the papers the fact that we have a child together and I am raising her in the house and assuming the financial responsibility of it makes it mine. I DON'T need advice on whether or not the arrangement is fair (trust me it is) or how it will effect his credit (we've discussed this). I simply want to know how (if possible) to do it.
Thanks in advance!
