No, he stole the property from the business. If he used force to escape with the goods, it could be charged as PC 211.
Robbery does NOT require the property first be taken from the immediate possession of a person.
Note that this is even included in the Jury Instructions from Calcrim:
[A (store/ [or] business) (employee/ <insert
description>) may be robbed if property of the (store/ [or]
business) is taken, even though he or she does not own the
property and was not, at that moment, in immediate physical
control of the property. If the facts show that the (employee/
<insert description>) was a representative of the
owner of the property and the (employee/ <insert
description>) expressly or implicitly had authority over the
property, then that (employee/ <insert description>)
may be robbed if property of the (store/ [or] business) is taken by
force or fear.]