Within the company I work, there are two distinct set of 'rules' - those for the employees married, with children and those without.
Employees (female) who are married with children, are given flexibility in staying home if there is no school; being with their child if sick; if childcare costs can not be met, again, staying home with their child; attending school functions; etc., all without having to take vacation days.
These employees are also extended the priviledge of working from home.
I (female) am not married, with no children, am not offered the same flexibility or benefits.
The employee handbook does not cover this issue.
Is this a common and accepted practice for companies, or is does this border on discrimination?
Employees (female) who are married with children, are given flexibility in staying home if there is no school; being with their child if sick; if childcare costs can not be met, again, staying home with their child; attending school functions; etc., all without having to take vacation days.
These employees are also extended the priviledge of working from home.
I (female) am not married, with no children, am not offered the same flexibility or benefits.
The employee handbook does not cover this issue.
Is this a common and accepted practice for companies, or is does this border on discrimination?