I have a question concerning Family Law Fee Agreements.
When charging by the hour and using a lien on the family home to secure payment, does that necessarily mean the client must then pay an increase of normal hourly rates ($75/hr more) plus be charged interest?
Also, can a lien be made on a piece of property that is not in the client's name, but is seperate property owned by the spouse, without the spouse's consent?
When charging by the hour and using a lien on the family home to secure payment, does that necessarily mean the client must then pay an increase of normal hourly rates ($75/hr more) plus be charged interest?
Also, can a lien be made on a piece of property that is not in the client's name, but is seperate property owned by the spouse, without the spouse's consent?