prettykitty007
New Member
At my wits end here and need some advice. My ex decided he wanted to keep the house, tho it is in my name (his gma cosigned). He attempted to purchase it in jan 06 but could not because of poor payment history. FHA wanted 1 year of timely payments before he applies again. When we filed, we stated that he intends to buy the home in Feb 07 and that he was responsible for mortgage payments.
Throughout the year he provided me a check for the mortgage and I mailed it on to the bank. In Aug 06 he decided that he could not afford to buy the home and wanted to sell it. In Nov 06 he moved out of the home with the intention of cleaning the carpets and staging the home.
It is now Feb 07 and he still has possessions in the house and has not cleaned out the home. He also failed to make the jan payment and now the current payment is due as well and he is saying that he will only pay a portion of it.
I certainly cannot pay for the house, which is what I will have to do to keep the loan in good standing and avoid foreclosure on myself. Is it possible for the courts to make someone follow thru on their intention to buy the house, if they no longer wish to do so?
Anyone else been thru this?
Throughout the year he provided me a check for the mortgage and I mailed it on to the bank. In Aug 06 he decided that he could not afford to buy the home and wanted to sell it. In Nov 06 he moved out of the home with the intention of cleaning the carpets and staging the home.
It is now Feb 07 and he still has possessions in the house and has not cleaned out the home. He also failed to make the jan payment and now the current payment is due as well and he is saying that he will only pay a portion of it.
I certainly cannot pay for the house, which is what I will have to do to keep the loan in good standing and avoid foreclosure on myself. Is it possible for the courts to make someone follow thru on their intention to buy the house, if they no longer wish to do so?
Anyone else been thru this?
