My father and I practice as Chiropractors and we have separate businesses. The lease my father has is a two year lease that is in the name of my business, and my name or signature is not on the lease. My father's legal business name is not on the lease, but he did sign it. Can this be considered an invalid lease? The lease is the first two year lease as the others have always been one year leases. The lease in question was made up by the new owner of the building. I have heard of implied contracts and wondered if there can also be a question of validity of the two year term as my father has always had a one year lease?