My soon to be step daughters father had been struck by a drunk driver while walking on the side of a road at night. . . . Recently, My fiancé was asked to sign papers regarding benefit agreements for her daughter on behalf of her father who is now disabled.
I'm confused by this. Your reference to your "fiancé" indicates you're engaged to the child's father. But then you mention that your "fiancé was asked to sign papers . . . for
her daughter." For the time being, I'm going to assume that you meant "fiancée," not "fiancé," but please say so if that's not correct.
Substantively, who asked your fiancée to sign these "papers," what do the "papers" say, and what do these "benefit agreements" provide for?
Also, when did the accident happen?
We recently found out, the drunk driver had become sick with covid a few months after the accident and passed away from it.
The child's father should have filed suit against the driver before the driver died. If he didn't do that, then he should now file suit against the driver's estate. I don't really expect you to know, but is there any reason to believe that the driver's estate has substantial assets beyond the driver's insurance coverage (assuming he carried liability insurance)?
Long story short, we have been informed that there isn't much the state can do to provide the child with an appropriate amount of support necessary in regards to the father becoming non dependable.. does this seem correct?
I don't really understand the question. It is up to the child's parents, not the state, to provide the child with "an appropriate amount of support." If the accident made it so that the father cannot support his child, then that burden will fall to the mother. You didn't tell us anything about her ability to do that, but there are state and federal programs available for low-income families.
