M
MattW1701
Guest
- Jurisdiction
- US Federal Law
I've followed the discussion about voting restrictions in (mostly Republican controlled) states for a few years now (I'm not a lawyer) and watching the NYT's latest Retro Report about the 2000 Supreme Court decision "Bush v. Gore" made me realise that the Supreme Court may have (unwittingly) provided a possible line of attack against voter ID laws.
Bush v. Gore was decided on the basis that there was an Equal Protection Clause violation in using different standards of counting in different counties (the 14th amendment, if I'm not mistaken). Why couldn't one argue that the fact that a person in one state doesn't need ID to vote (or can vote in advance) and another one does (or can't) violates the Equal Protection Clause?
If the fact that you are living in, say, Texas is the only reason that you cannot vote in a Presidential Election, how is that not at least a good start for an argument along those lines? If "Bush v. Gore" set the precedent of applying the 14th amendment to decide how elections must be held unifromly in various counties, why can't we apply the same principle to the US as a whole?
Bush v. Gore was decided on the basis that there was an Equal Protection Clause violation in using different standards of counting in different counties (the 14th amendment, if I'm not mistaken). Why couldn't one argue that the fact that a person in one state doesn't need ID to vote (or can vote in advance) and another one does (or can't) violates the Equal Protection Clause?
If the fact that you are living in, say, Texas is the only reason that you cannot vote in a Presidential Election, how is that not at least a good start for an argument along those lines? If "Bush v. Gore" set the precedent of applying the 14th amendment to decide how elections must be held unifromly in various counties, why can't we apply the same principle to the US as a whole?