bicentinal_baby
New Member
In a nut shell my husband has agreed to give his son.. 3yrs old to his ex-wife. Now they have been divorced for 2 yrs, and for the entire 3 yrs the child has been alive he has lived with the father. About 2 weeks ago they apparently came to some kind of verbal agreement and the child now resides with the mother. With that said, the mother has had difficulty in the past caring for the child, and she has made several attempts on her life. He feels she is better now mentally and physically.. she goes to dialysis 3xper week. She does not work, and lives with her mother. My question is even if she is "better", what kind of ramifications can he en dour given their divorce decree state he is the home parent, and while he waived the right for child support, can't she now file for temp orders, and at that time request child support now that she has the child?? He is convinced that they have an agreement, and she would not do this, but given her ... past.. I'm not convinced.. He stands to lose ALOT, and the child is just going to be more confused if he returns after too much more time passes.. Wouldn't the judge take in account the instability of the mom and would he automatically grant their agreement.. or would he take in consideration the best interest of the child no matter the parents decide?? I, being the step parent, am trying to stay out as much as I can, however there are 2 other children in the house, and our family could be in for a very rough road.. I begged him to seek counsel.. no luck yet....HELP!
Live Love Laugh
Live Love Laugh
