caramarina
New Member
In order to make a downpayment on a house we wanted to buy (property A), my boyfriend suggested that we get a line of credit on "his" house that was owned free and clear (property B). That property B was actually in his grandmother's name. Because he had horrible credit, his grandmother deeded the property to me. I got a line of credit through my employer (a bank) and we used that line of credit for a downpayment on a different property. Two years later we broke up and he financed property A in his name, purchasing it from me (property A was purchased in my name only due to his credit issues also). The proceeds of the sale ($19,000) were to go to the remodel of property B, which was still in my name. Prior to this he had decided to remodel the house and completely tore it apart. During our break up, we made a verbal agreement that he finish the remodel, and I gave him the $19,000 and he has not done anything to property B and spent the money on other things. Now I have a house that is completely unliveable and is behind on taxes. Furthermore, the lien against the property is through my bank. I have records verifying that I gave the money to him, but no signed contract. Can I file a lawsuit against him (or whatever the terminology) stating he broke a verbal contract? It has been 20 months since he was handed the money. I cannot foreclose on the house or file bankruptcy without seriously jeopardizing my career. My livelihood is at stake here because of bad decisions on my part, but he walked away with $19,000 of my money that was supposed to be used to finish my house. I am grateful for ANY advice at all.
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