I suppose one owner could via conversion or fraud dispose of real property.
However, it wouldn't be a legal sale.
If the homestead was acquired during the marriage, both people would own 50% of the home.
Therefore a transaction such as the one you recited would probably not be legal.
If one party owned the home, prior to the marriage, said party could legally sell the home.
In the latter scenario, the spouse could assert no legal claim to the home