Winston Bradbury
New Member
- Jurisdiction
- Arizona
Is there any type of situation that might lead to a person or group of people possessing the legal right to covertly (no consent) electronically monitor (video, audio, including in-home cameras or audio recorders) an individual?
For example, any type of video device installed in the home or automobile of a person that was totally without their consent - giving the controller of such a device the ability to see them even inside the complete expected privacy of their own home/bedroom/bathroom the whole 9 yards.
For the purpose of this question, let's say that anything set up by family, spouse, etc., is not in scope. In other words, this isn't one of those "is my spouse legally allowed to put a gps tracker on my car?" questions. This isn't about that.
Is there any legal situation or set of facts/events that could lead up to that actually being legitimate? Or is it pretty safe to assume that if someone were doing that to me, it couldn't possibly be legitimate and legal without there having been a court proceeding at least of SOME kind that I would know about?
Please don't respond if you're overly distracted by the urge to just mock this question as paranoid or silly or ridiculous. I'm looking for someone capable of addressing the essence of the question - are there circumstances that could actually lead to this being a plausible state of affairs? If so what are they??!
For example, any type of video device installed in the home or automobile of a person that was totally without their consent - giving the controller of such a device the ability to see them even inside the complete expected privacy of their own home/bedroom/bathroom the whole 9 yards.
For the purpose of this question, let's say that anything set up by family, spouse, etc., is not in scope. In other words, this isn't one of those "is my spouse legally allowed to put a gps tracker on my car?" questions. This isn't about that.
Is there any legal situation or set of facts/events that could lead up to that actually being legitimate? Or is it pretty safe to assume that if someone were doing that to me, it couldn't possibly be legitimate and legal without there having been a court proceeding at least of SOME kind that I would know about?
Please don't respond if you're overly distracted by the urge to just mock this question as paranoid or silly or ridiculous. I'm looking for someone capable of addressing the essence of the question - are there circumstances that could actually lead to this being a plausible state of affairs? If so what are they??!