Pet peeve: Constitutional Right

Chris A. Duke

New Member
Jurisdiction
California
Is it:
A) Constitutional right
or
B) Constitutionally protected right

A, would imply that rights are granted by the constitution. It would also imply that they are not inherent or unalienable as mentioned in the Declaration which came before the constitution. When someone uses the term constitutional rights, I have to assume that they are referring to civil liberties [privileges] rather than actual rights, since nowhere is it written that government creates rights, or take rights away by vote or legislation, barring consent or criminal act. A government can not create rights. In fact, it gets it's own rights and sovereignty by the consent of the governed. "Nemo plus juris transferre ad alium potest quam ipse habet - No one can transfer to another a larger right than he himself has."

B) Simply stated, Government was created to protect individual rights, and barring consent, must remain under their oath of office, and in so doing, are required to obey the constitution. In essence, it is a restraining order against government trespass, not the origin of rights in America.

Anyway, this has always been a pet peeve of mine. My first day here, and apologize if I've posted this in the wrong place, or if the general consensus of the group is that I'm off topic for this law forum.
 
You're over complicating things.
The law is nothing but common sense.
You're correct in stating that the founders believed all rights were given to all humanity by God.
The constitution was the vehicle the founders used to communicate and define those rights as understood by them.

Today's government officials seem to have lost their way.
Government today believes human rights flow through organized government to the residents and citizens, and are redefining rights the founders believed to have originated through the Deity for all to enjoy.

As far as government protecting rights, again the founders would disagree. The founders believed the Deity conferred rights upon all, yet the founders extrapolated "all" to mean some!!! We all know the constitution defined Native Americans and those considered slaves to be 3/5s of a European male, and women didn't matter.

The 60% definition wasn't to say those people could enjoy 60% 0of the rights a Euro enjoyed, rather to address apportionment and representation. Ahhh, humans are a funny old lot, what?
 
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