I work as a hairstylist and I breached my non compete with my previous employer. When I was sued, I agreed to pay the amount specified because I did not want to blow a bunch of money on court fees when I have been told from multiple sources that Kansas upholds non compete contracts. Well now the location where I worked is closed and the rules of the contract are void(5 mile radius, 1 year time). I have paid faithfully since September 2010 and it has not even been a year since I quit and they are belly up.
Does this affect my agreement to pay? I do not remember if it said anything about the business closing, but I am clearly no longer in competition so it would at least be subject to re-evaluation, right?
Some more useful info: The owner of the Company understaffed, under-supplied, and condescended his employees at my location(my former co-workers would attest to it on my account), while treating his other location like royalty.
The Owner was attempting to sell the company while pursuing me for contract violation, while that is subjective to the case it still seems relevant because if he was trying to off-load the business then he is obviously not that interested in the clientele he was trying to keep from me.
The Owner gave 4 days notice to the current staff of the Company that they would be closing, not even in person but over the phone. That is wrong in itself, I think; but again, subjective.
If my agreement to pay on my contract is not voidable with this information, can I at least hope for a re-evaluation by the courts?
Thank you so much
Does this affect my agreement to pay? I do not remember if it said anything about the business closing, but I am clearly no longer in competition so it would at least be subject to re-evaluation, right?
Some more useful info: The owner of the Company understaffed, under-supplied, and condescended his employees at my location(my former co-workers would attest to it on my account), while treating his other location like royalty.
The Owner was attempting to sell the company while pursuing me for contract violation, while that is subjective to the case it still seems relevant because if he was trying to off-load the business then he is obviously not that interested in the clientele he was trying to keep from me.
The Owner gave 4 days notice to the current staff of the Company that they would be closing, not even in person but over the phone. That is wrong in itself, I think; but again, subjective.
If my agreement to pay on my contract is not voidable with this information, can I at least hope for a re-evaluation by the courts?
Thank you so much
