It's not "cheating" anything. It's expressly in the statute. 18 USC 921 defines the disabling offense as:
(20) The term "crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year" does not include--
(A) any Federal or State offenses pertaining to antitrust violations, unfair trade practices, restraints of trade, or other similar offenses relating to the regulation of business practices, or
(B) any State offense classified by the laws of the State as a misdemeanor and punishable by a term of imprisonment of two years or less.
What constitutes a conviction of such a crime shall be determined in accordance with the law of the jurisdiction in which the proceedings were held. Any conviction which has been expunged, or set aside or for which a person has been pardoned or has had civil rights restored shall not be considered a conviction for purposes of this chapter, unless such pardon, expungement, or restoration of civil rights expressly provides that the person may not ship, transport, possess, or receive firearms.
Read that last part that a placed in bold. If the state relieves him from the disability as specified, it works for the feds as well.
Please stop inserting your political beliefs as if they were the law.