Is a rental lease considered void if a landlord's child signs it? -- [CO]

[zoinbergs]

Hello!

So I have been researching this topic on my own for days, without much luck.. perhaps somebody could be kind enough to help me / give me a push in the right direction?

Let me elaborate..

Back in January of this year I rented the basement of a house. It's actually a house converted into a duplex, with some neighbors living above me, and the home owner's son and daughter-in-law living next door to me. Before I moved in I signed a lease with that son, and not the actual home owner.

I'm currently being sued in small claims court, and I wanted to know if the contract I'm being sued over was actually never a valid contract in the first place. The party legally suing me is the home owner and his wife, not their son (who's signature is the only one present on the contract).

So does the home owner have any grounds to sue me on, when they never signed the lease to begin with? From what I understand it could be "implied" that they signed the lease because their son did -- but I also recently learned that their son may have needed to be a "registered agent" of his parents to have the legal jurisdiction to sign a contract for them.

Perhaps a contract lawyer could shed some light on this subject? I would be forever grateful if I could receive a little help today!

Thank you so much for reading this, and I look forward to the responses I hope to receive from you.

Sincerely,
William

 

[zoinbergs]

I believe it is worth noting that I delivered rent (cash) monthly to the home owner's son, and once wrote a check made out to the home owner -- and had delivered it to the son.

 

[jacksgal]

I see nothing wrong here. The son was acting as manager so to speak much like many Apartment complexs

 

[zoinbergs]

Thanks for the info.. I was beginning to think he was acting as "manager" -- perhaps I will spend my energy elsewhere at this point. :yes:

You've been very helpful jacksgal!