Fair or Foul payment stipulation

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jdoggedit

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My wife is claiming that it is normal for an agreement to include that I am not able to re-marry until I have paid in full the amount put fourth in our settlement agreement. The agreement is that I would pay her in installments over time so that I could keep the house and not have to sell it to pay her in full at the time of the divorce. But in doing so I'm giving up the ability to remarry until that balance is paid (4 years).
Does this sound like something she's put in there or is this normal ?

Thanks!
 
Q: Does this sound like something she's put in there or is this normal ?

A: First time I ever heard of such a thing (and I am a really old fart).:D
 
That is not normal. Why would she care if you remarry? As long as you continue to pay her it should not be her business. I doubt anything like that is enforceable but if she is trying to put that in the agreement, I wouls not sign it.

Also, you need to think about if you want any clause put in there on this. Since you are paying her alimony you do have a right to stop it if she remarries, but the decree needs to be specific and say that.
 
I'm not paying her "alimony" I'm paying her 50k and I'm keeping the house.
Are you both attorneys, reason I ask is.. she is :)

Thanks!!
 
I'm not paying her "alimony" I'm paying her 50k and I'm keeping the house.
Are you both attorneys, reason I ask is.. she is :)

Thanks!!

I'm a judge who does not talk about his past....:dgrin
 
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