My wife is claiming that it is normal for an agreement to include that I am not able to re-marry until I have paid in full the amount put fourth in our settlement agreement. The agreement is that I would pay her in installments over time so that I could keep the house and not have to sell it to pay her in full at the time of the divorce. But in doing so I'm giving up the ability to remarry until that balance is paid (4 years).
Does this sound like something she's put in there or is this normal ?
Thanks!
Does this sound like something she's put in there or is this normal ?
Thanks!