My sister-in-law lives in Florida (Santa Rosa county) and is planning to divorce her husband (only married two years). She owned the house they live in prior to marrying him and it is still solely in her name. She has paid the mortgage on it the entire time they have been married, as he has rarely worked and contributed. Since he has lived there the past two years, does he have any claim to the house (or half of the profit if sold)? Would having him sign a quitclaim deed be a way to handle this?