- Jurisdiction
- Texas
Purchased acres in November but lease agreement had been signed in October by previous owner. And payment is funded when contract is signed in October. All this time I assumed farmer had been busy and hadn't had time to get with me to sign contract. But in reality he had paid previous owner one month prior to me purchasing property. So my question is since the property was legally owned by me the time of crops being planted and harvested shouldn't I have the right to some partial payment if not all? Or is it legal for previous owner to have been paid and been able to have sold property?