M
MinT337
Guest
- Jurisdiction
- Texas
I sold a 10 year old car for $2700. I disclosed all issues that I knew of (even minor ones). Purchase went smoothly. About 2 weeks after the sale, the buyer says he has a CarFax that says the car was sold with a bent frame 6 years ago (before I owned the car), and that he wants his money back. I told him that was before I owned the car and I didn't even know that was the case (I never bought a CarFax). He is threatening to take me to small claims court. This would be very inconvenient for me, as I now live far away. I don't think he has a leg to stand on. Am I right?
Some Technical Details:
He paid in full and in cash and took possession on the same day.
I signed the title over to him that day.
I signed, scanned, and e-mailed him the Bill of Sale the next day. It has complete information except for seller registration number, because I do not know what that is.
The DMV template bill of sale does not say "as is" anywhere. My understanding is that all private sales are implied "as is".
I had my mechanic look at the car after I bought it. He never noticed anything, though he wasn't specifically looking for frame issues.
I sent in the vehicle transfer notification to the Texas DMV after he contacted me wanting the refund, but still within the 30 day window.
Some Technical Details:
He paid in full and in cash and took possession on the same day.
I signed the title over to him that day.
I signed, scanned, and e-mailed him the Bill of Sale the next day. It has complete information except for seller registration number, because I do not know what that is.
The DMV template bill of sale does not say "as is" anywhere. My understanding is that all private sales are implied "as is".
I had my mechanic look at the car after I bought it. He never noticed anything, though he wasn't specifically looking for frame issues.
I sent in the vehicle transfer notification to the Texas DMV after he contacted me wanting the refund, but still within the 30 day window.