I live in VT. We have owned our house for approx. 3 years. Our neighbor claims that we have a "shared" driveway. He has a driveay on the other side of his house as well, making a nice little loop for him (and lotsof other neighborhood traffic.) The traffic going through has gotten intolerable, and since our property was sold to us "free of any encroachments" we had a title search done and it is not in our title that he has any claim to our property. Curiously, it IS in his deed that he has aright of way. Can that be? Wouldnt it have to be in both to be legal? thanks for any help!