Real Estate Fraudulent Concealment

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Shorty1

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Original (very limited) purchase agreement (basic provision was price) provided seller would pay for land survey.

Upon completion of the survey, seller discovered the property line was off by 1 acre and 1/3 of the home was sitting on neighbor's property.

Seller changed subsequent detailed sales agreement, including the Property Condition Disclosure Statement and Deed of Trust to say that no survey was done but if a problem ever arose, seller would be responsible.

Buyer reasonably relied on seller's assertion that no survey had been done, that everything was fine, and purchased the property.

I.C. § 55-2516 provides that good faith was required in making disclosures (good faith means honesty in fact, in the conduct of the transaction); and

I.C. § 55-2514, does not relieve seller of obligation to disclose other information; and

I.C. §§ 55-2506 - 55-2507 does not limit and was not to be construed as limiting any obligation to disclose an item of information that is created by any other section of the Idaho Code or the common law of the state of Idaho.

A few years later this purchase agreement was amended to exclude all language as it pertained to the survey. Also, the amendment included the customary "you cannot sue me" provision.

Last year, buyer discovered what seller had done, i.e., intentionally misrepresented and failed to disclose the fact that a survey had, in fact, been completed and the reason the seller excluded the reference to the survey in the amended agreement was in an attempt to have clean hands.

I.C. § 55-901 speaks to fraudulent conveyances of land provides, "Every instrument, other than a will, affecting an estate in real property, including every charge upon real property, or upon its rents or profits, made with intent to defraud prior or subsequent purchasers thereof, or encumbrances thereon, is void as against every purchaser or encumbrancer, for value, of the same property, or the rents or profits thereof."

Also, the Warranty Deed provides, "And the said Grantors, for themselves, their heirs, executors, and administrators, do covenant, grant, bargain, and agree to and with the said Grantees, their heirs and assigns, that at the time of the ensealing and delivery of these presents they were well seized of the premises above conveyed as of good, sure, perfect, absolute, and indefeasible estate of inheritance, in fee simple, and have good rights, full power and lawful authority to grant, bargain, sell, and convey the same in the manner and form aforesaid, and that the same are free and clear from all and former grants, bargains, liens, taxes, assessments, and encumbrances of whatever kind or nature whatsoever,…"

Seller intentionally, willfully, and with malice aforethought committed the wrongful act of fraud by knowingly selling to buyer real property seller had no rights, full power, or lawful authority to sell.

Question 1: Assuming the court declares the original sales agreement void due to fraud; how might that effect the second agreement which removed all references to the survey?

In other words, if the original agreement is void and no longer exists, and the second agreement was made based on a "now nonexistent agreement", how can the terms of the second agreement be upheld?

Question 2: Since it is obvious that seller intentionally deleted the survey language from the second agreement and intentionally added the "you can't sue me" language, what are the odds the court will throw the second agreement out?
 
Fraud & Fraudulent Concealment???

First off, let me just say that I personally find such underhanded and deceitful shenanigans beyond unconscionable and I can imagine it does not feel very good to wake up years later to find that you have been had by greed.

But from the information and the timeline of events you have given here, I do not see how an argument for Fraud, and fraudulent Concealment (etc.) would prevail. This is not to say that what the seller did was not fraudulent, which it was undoubtedly, but rather what transpired afterwards to which you consented which may neutralize any claim of fraud.

There will also be, if he should think to raise it as a defense, a pretty strong counter-argument to your claim of fraud and concealment, which would be the equivalent of the Law of Contracts' doctrine of The Duty to Read. Because if I am not mistaken, a buyer looking to purchase real estate should also conduct an independent survey of the land to make sure the title is not clouded or encumbered in any way, which unfortunately you did not perform and instead relied too much on the seller's honesty. Furthermore, you also stipulated in the original contract, and so expressly consenting to seller curing any future discovery of title defects or infirmities,

To make your prospects of recourse, a mite harder, you once again gave your express consent to an amendment to the original contract, which amendment erased all language pertaining to land survey, a contract which you might well be claiming as fraudulent should you bring legal action against the seller. The only thing that will not stand legal scrutiny is your waiver of your legal rights to a remedy by agreeing not to pursue any legal action against the seller should such and thus be out of joint.

So I am really of the opinion that a claim of fraud will be a very difficult proposition when the Defendant can show from the records that you had acknowledged and consented repeatedly to the possibility of any future title defects or encumbrances. I therefore cannot see how the court will declare the original contract void based on fraud if the essential elements constituting fraud are not proven. Not that the courts are in the business of declaring contracts null and void to begin with; it is not their job or inclination to do so. The courts are there however, to see to it that if proven, an injured party is compensated for damages incurred due to the defendant's wrongful acts and parity is restored.

Which brings me to my last point; you have not said what damages you have sustained due to the seller's wrong doings, because simply averring the latent discovery of some wrongful act is not going to be enough to base a lawsuit on. You are going to have to show damages and pray for relief accordingly.

So, what are your damages?

fredrikklaw
 
First off, let me just say that I personally find such underhanded and deceitful shenanigans beyond unconscionable and I can imagine it does not feel very good to wake up years later to find that you have been had by greed.

But from the information and the timeline of events you have given here, I do not see how an argument for Fraud, and fraudulent Concealment (etc.) would prevail. This is not to say that what the seller did was not fraudulent, which it was undoubtedly, but rather what transpired afterwards to which you consented which may neutralize any claim of fraud.

There will also be, if he should think to raise it as a defense, a pretty strong counter-argument to your claim of fraud and concealment, which would be the equivalent of the Law of Contracts' doctrine of The Duty to Read. Because if I am not mistaken, a buyer looking to purchase real estate should also conduct an independent survey of the land to make sure the title is not clouded or encumbered in any way, which unfortunately you did not perform and instead relied too much on the seller's honesty. Furthermore, you also stipulated in the original contract, and so expressly consenting to seller curing any future discovery of title defects or infirmities,

To make your prospects of recourse, a mite harder, you once again gave your express consent to an amendment to the original contract, which amendment erased all language pertaining to land survey, a contract which you might well be claiming as fraudulent should you bring legal action against the seller. The only thing that will not stand legal scrutiny is your waiver of your legal rights to a remedy by agreeing not to pursue any legal action against the seller should such and thus be out of joint.

So I am really of the opinion that a claim of fraud will be a very difficult proposition when the Defendant can show from the records that you had acknowledged and consented repeatedly to the possibility of any future title defects or encumbrances. I therefore cannot see how the court will declare the original contract void based on fraud if the essential elements constituting fraud are not proven. Not that the courts are in the business of declaring contracts null and void to begin with; it is not their job or inclination to do so. The courts are there however, to see to it that if proven, an injured party is compensated for damages incurred due to the defendant's wrongful acts and parity is restored.

Which brings me to my last point; you have not said what damages you have sustained due to the seller's wrong doings, because simply averring the latent discovery of some wrongful act is not going to be enough to base a lawsuit on. You are going to have to show damages and pray for relief accordingly.

So, what are your damages?

Dear Fredrikklaw, thank you so much for your analysis. Everything you wrote makes perfect sense.

I appreciate the fact that you too believe the seller is an underhanded scumbag and his deceitful shenanigans are beyond unconscionable :)

As for damages, there really are none, especially since the neighbor quitclaimed the property in question to the buyer thereby making him whole.

And who says crime doesn't pay?

Thank you again, Shorty1
 
First off, let me just say that I personally find such underhanded and deceitful shenanigans beyond unconscionable and I can imagine it does not feel very good to wake up years later to find that you have been had by greed.

But from the information and the timeline of events you have given here, I do not see how an argument for Fraud, and fraudulent Concealment (etc.) would prevail. This is not to say that what the seller did was not fraudulent, which it was undoubtedly, but rather what transpired afterwards to which you consented which may neutralize any claim of fraud.

There will also be, if he should think to raise it as a defense, a pretty strong counter-argument to your claim of fraud and concealment, which would be the equivalent of the Law of Contracts' doctrine of The Duty to Read. Because if I am not mistaken, a buyer looking to purchase real estate should also conduct an independent survey of the land to make sure the title is not clouded or encumbered in any way, which unfortunately you did not perform and instead relied too much on the seller's honesty. Furthermore, you also stipulated in the original contract, and so expressly consenting to seller curing any future discovery of title defects or infirmities,

To make your prospects of recourse, a mite harder, you once again gave your express consent to an amendment to the original contract, which amendment erased all language pertaining to land survey, a contract which you might well be claiming as fraudulent should you bring legal action against the seller. The only thing that will not stand legal scrutiny is your waiver of your legal rights to a remedy by agreeing not to pursue any legal action against the seller should such and thus be out of joint.

So I am really of the opinion that a claim of fraud will be a very difficult proposition when the Defendant can show from the records that you had acknowledged and consented repeatedly to the possibility of any future title defects or encumbrances. I therefore cannot see how the court will declare the original contract void based on fraud if the essential elements constituting fraud are not proven. Not that the courts are in the business of declaring contracts null and void to begin with; it is not their job or inclination to do so. The courts are there however, to see to it that if proven, an injured party is compensated for damages incurred due to the defendant's wrongful acts and parity is restored.

Which brings me to my last point; you have not said what damages you have sustained due to the seller's wrong doings, because simply averring the latent discovery of some wrongful act is not going to be enough to base a lawsuit on. You are going to have to show damages and pray for relief accordingly.

So, what are your damages?

Dear Fredrikklaw, thank you so much for your analysis. Everything you wrote makes perfect sense.

I appreciate the fact that you too believe the seller is an underhanded scumbag and his deceitful shenanigans are beyond unconscionable :)

As for damages, there really are none, especially since the neighbor quitclaimed the property in question to the buyer thereby making him whole.

And who says crime doesn't pay?

Thank you again, Shorty1

One more question please. Why doesn't I.C. § 55-901, which provides, "Every instrument, other than a will, affecting an estate in real property, including every charge upon real property, or upon its rents or profits, made with intent to defraud prior or subsequent purchasers thereof, or encumbrances thereon, is VOID as against every purchaser or encumbrancer, for value, of the same property, or the rents or profits thereof" automatically void the original sales agreement?
 
One more question please. Why doesn't I.C. § 55-901, which provides, "Every instrument, other than a will, affecting an estate in real property, including every charge upon real property, or upon its rents or profits, made with intent to defraud prior or subsequent purchasers thereof, or encumbrances thereon, is VOID as against every purchaser or encumbrancer, for value, of the same property, or the rents or profits thereof" automatically void the original sales agreement?
 
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