A few years ago, my husband and I divorced. I assumed the mortgage by agreeing I would pay him back his share of down payment and then some, which I did. At that time, the mortgage was only a few months old. Soon afterwards, the paperwork for the mortage was all done, and I have been the sole owner since.
We also had a unofficial side agreement that I pay him more since he didn't want anyone (the government) to know that I'd give him more. I didn't agree to this but signed it to get this divorce/mortage assumption over with. This was not notorized or bound to any legal document. Now the value of the property has skyrocketed and he wants more out of me on top of what we had unofficially agreed on. I am so angry, I don't even want to give him the unofficially agreed amount. Do I have to pay him a dime? I paid enough the first time around.
-Patty
We also had a unofficial side agreement that I pay him more since he didn't want anyone (the government) to know that I'd give him more. I didn't agree to this but signed it to get this divorce/mortage assumption over with. This was not notorized or bound to any legal document. Now the value of the property has skyrocketed and he wants more out of me on top of what we had unofficially agreed on. I am so angry, I don't even want to give him the unofficially agreed amount. Do I have to pay him a dime? I paid enough the first time around.
-Patty