My mother is one of six siblings who own an unsegrated piece of property apprx. 7 acres (approx. 4 currently cleared and livable). We currently are the only ones who live on the property while an uncle has a country home here and comes twice a month. There is another home on the property which belonged to my aunt and uncle who are both deceased and their offspring rarely come but once every 4 months or so and that is to clean the property. They (my cousins) have inherited their share down our bloodline as it was my grandfather's wish. My uncle A who comes twice a month is financially better off than his brothers B and C and has "bought" their share based on loans that of course can not be repaid due to their financial levels. I personally feel he took advantage of their misfortunate hard times and posed a loan as a lien on their share of the property. So far he has done this with two of my other uncles B and C and an aunt D. My uncles B and C have told my mother this because they say the saw and signed the transaction as a loan, yet my uncle A has more savvy and without repayment my Uncle A believes that he owns their share. We advised him that the transactions are not legal because we feel that since the property is not segrated, then all co-owners should be notified of any "legal" transactions and given the same opportunity to purchase should that be the case. We are just not seeing a fair situation here and need some clarity. Can anyone help? I'll check back to answer questions which I'm sure there will be of because there are other details. Thanks.