Question on preponderance of the evidence

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Jimi444

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I have a question regarding "preponderance of evidence". I am currently involved in a civil case, which has many claims or "torts" to it. I am going to make up a scenario to try and lay everything out.
So I am being sued in a civil case. Lets say a person I know owns a prize show dog named "lassie". This dog just happens to have my contact information on a collar tag that the dog is wearing because I original purchased the dog for my old friend, but I used his money to purchase the dog. I was good friends with this person until a point came when they did not want to be my friend. So after I am no longer friends with this person, I purchase my own dog, but give it a similar name of "lassiee". I don't intend to used the dog for show (or to make any money off of). Several months later while I am walking down the street I see the prize show dog "lassie" walking down the street. I approach the dog and notice that my contact information is still on the dogs collar. So I take it upon myself to update the dog collar information. I do not put down that the dog belongs to Joe Blow or Bill Clinton, I put down my old friends contact information.
So now, I get a affidavit from my old friend that lists out several things...
1. I bought my own dog and gave it a name one letter off from his dog, for the apparent purpose of interfering with his dog show capabilities (tort I guess).
2. I changed the contact information on his dog collar.
3. I gave his dog a virus through some bad dog food, causing the dog to become sick, thus being unable to perform in dog shows for a week.
4. I shaved part of his dogs head to make it look ugly.
5. I harassed "lassie" by having that one contact with the dog on the street.
6. I tell others that I own a prize show dog named "lassiee".
7. I have been attempting to steal lassie.

Ok, so I'm getting to my question. In this civil case with "preponderance of the evidence", what can be used? I know that in a civil case, damages must be proved. So I admit to number 1 and 2. I did purchase my own dog and gave it a name one letter off, but never used the dog to make money off of or represented it as my old friends dog. And I updated the contact information on the dogs collar.
But can they just put anything they want into an affidavit? Since I admit to the first two things, does that swing the favor towards the plaintiff? Obviously the most damages in a case like this would be from the dog getting a virus and getting sick. So does the lawyer from my old friend have to prove each allegation, or does it mean that since I did one or two things, I'm guilty of everything they claim?
 
You shouldn't admit to 1, at least not in its entirety. You bought a dog, but not for the purpose of interfering with your friend.

Whether your admissions "swing the favour" toward your friend depends on what you mean by that. He doesn't have to prove them, since they're admitted. On the other hand, you look like a reasonable and rational person and aren't forcing the court to waste its time on trifling details. You get brownie points.

You should specifically deny any allegation you don't admit. The other side will have to prove those allegations. I emphasize "specifically deny" - if you don't deny something, you might be deemed to admit it.
 
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This is true, I am not admitting to the first thing entirely. I only purchased the dog, not for the use to interfere with someone else' business. But since I admit partially to that allegation, would that swing a jury over that "great than 50%" margin to find someone guilty of something. I mean they just cant put in a but of false stuff along with something I admitted partially to. How would something like that weigh with a jury or judge trial?
From what I understand about "preponderance of evidence", it means "more likely than not" or "a greater than 50% chance" that someone did something. If my old friend claims damages of 1 million dollars, wouldn't they have to say which allegation was based on this amount? I'm sure that lose of business and giving a dog a virus would fall under this damage amount. But how would that weigh in for overall damages?
I guess my main concern is that, the things I admit to cause no damages to the other party, but can they use that to swing a jury to believe the false allegations?
 
The fact that you have the dog is not in dispute. It's yours, you admit. In fact, it is better to admit non-controversial facts than to force him to the proof - not admitting you own the dog just makes you look like an ass, and might subject you to court costs for failing to admit something you really should. Plus if you don't admit it, the trier of fact may be inclined to wonder what it is you're concealing.

There is no harm in having a dog, and it makes hardly an iota of difference to your case to admit it. It doesn't swing anyone toward thinking that you are trying to harm his business or make his dog sick. So you partially admit 1, you admit 2, and you deny everything else. He needs to prove everything you deny on the preponderance of evidence.

As far as damages go... He's really suing you for a million bucks? He's a nut, or I'm in the wrong racket... :) He's required to prove what the income from his dog would have been in the week it was sick, and had you not so inhumanely shaved its head, etc.
 
Well, this is just a hypothetical scenario that falls close in line with what I am dealing with. I have not gotten a amount on what I am being sued for, my lawyer said they will come up with a number later. But if it is something in the millions, I can't see where I would be responsible for lost business since the things I am admitting to caused no harm or damages.
 
I like to get as many opinions as possible, to see if there is a fresh prospective on my current case. I have never been involved in any type of legal matters before, so I want to be informed as much as possible. Thanks for your input.
 
I had a new development today. My lawyer called and told me they wanted to settle the case. They want me to pay them $15K and a permanent injunction. We are only two months into the case. My lawyer says they do not have a case against me (cannot prove damages), so they want to settle. Is that a good sign for me?
 
I had a new development today. My lawyer called and told me they wanted to settle the case. They want me to pay them $15K and a permanent injunction. We are only two months into the case. My lawyer says they do not have a case against me (cannot prove damages), so they want to settle. Is that a good sign for me?

Your lawyers want YOU to pay $15K but they say there is no case against YOU?

:confused:
 
My advice is to beware!! Many attorneys do not like to go to trial because then they are not able to double and triple bill clients. if they are in the court room trying your case they are no longer able to bill you for work, along with Joe the plumber, and John down the street. Take a good look before you leap. You might really be entitled to so much more, but for there sake it is better for them to cut their losses, meaning your attornies. Just remember tthey are not your friends or you family and the only one really wacthing your back is you. I know I learned this the hard way. Just a piece of advice for you to think about and to ponder a bit before making your decision. Good Luck.
 
Lawyer's aren't allowed to double and triple bill even when they're not in court. They may have other reasons for not wanting to go to trial, but that isn't one of them. Lawyers are also under a strict duty to watch your back. If you suspect your lawyer isn't acting in your best interest, file a complaint.
 
I am aware that my lawyer is not my friend. I know he runs a business and needs to make money too. He is a little slow, but seems to be getting the job done.
It is the plaintiff that wants me to pay them $15K, not my lawyer. My lawyer told them to shove it and said negotiations are off the table.
 
Well, I have a new development. The trial date was set for Feb, but we've informally extended the date since we are going to try and negotiate a deal. I have founds myself in a strange spot. They are seeking a "permanent injunction" against me. I am unable to afford the costs for depositions and the new lawyers fees to go to trial, so we are going to try and settle.
But does it always mean that if someone cannot afford the cost of going to trial that the plaintiff gets what they want? I think this is a load of crap that I have to negotiate something that I did not do. I do not want a "permanent injunction" against me. :mad:
Also, does a permanent injunction show up on a background check? My lawyer said that he would word it to where I would have no liability for the things that happened to them and it's no big deal. But why sign something that I have no fault for? Should I be forced to sign something for economical reasons?
 
What kind of permanent injunction? What conduct does it enjoin?

does it always mean that if someone cannot afford the cost of going to trial that the plaintiff gets what they want? I think this is a load of crap that I have to negotiate something that I did not do.

No. You can always apply for legal aid, look for a lawyer that will provide you some pro bono assistance, or represent yourself.

does a permanent injunction show up on a background check?

To my knowledge, the outcome of a civil suit does not show up in any background check.

My lawyer said that he would word it to where I would have no liability for the things that happened to them and it's no big deal. But why sign something that I have no fault for?

Because unless and until you and the other party agree, or it goes to court and the judge decides, it is uncertain whether or not you are at fault. You say you're not; the other party says you are. The settlement resolves it, and prevents them from haunting you in the future (assuming its worded properly).

Should I be forced to sign something for economical reasons?

You're not forced to sign anything. You might choose to do it for economical reasons.
 
Well, we came down to a settlement. My lawyer says that they want a permanent injunction and $2K. But, my lawyers said they are going to make sure it is worded to where I take no responsibility or liability for the issues that have happened to them. Basically that I promise not to do what I have already have not been doing. The injunction keeps me from ever contacting them or representing myself as them. Which I never did in the first place!
I found out they had absolutely no evidence at all! Going back to my original post, since I had a dog that had a name one letter off, they were going to try and confuse a jury to get a judgment against me! My lawyer said that I would most likely not get my lawyers fees back at the end of the trial though because since I had a dog that had a name one letter off, the court may see it as a valid claim for someone to bring me to court. So it's either pay $2K and agree to a permanent injunction (accepting no liability or responsibility for their issues) now or go to trail, spend $10K to $15K more in legal fees which I may not get back, and also risk having a judgment against me because some lawyer confused a jury on the facts.
It just really frustrates me that I cannot defend myself without losing thousands of dollars. My lawyers say that a permanent injunction is no big deal. I'm accepting no fault for any of the issues they brought up.
Thoughts?
 
Without knowing the facts of the case (other than the hypothetical scenario you posted), it's impossible to have an informed opinion. Generally, settlement is a financial decision: it's cheaper to settle than to go to court and win. It's an unfortunate situation.
 
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