infedelity and STD

[stillhurting]

About two years ago, my husband had a one night stand with someone associated with him through work. They had had a "flirtation" for about a year prior. Less than a month after, he HAD to tell me about it because he was diagnosed with genital herpes. When he confronted her about it, (she was the only person he had been with besides me for over 15 years), she apologized and said that she had "never given it to anyone before." Before he had found out about this "problem," he and I were intimate, and I also had been exposed to it and now live with it
I have never confronted her, because I could not find her- he would not give me information needed at the time, and I was ripped off by a "private investigator" whom I had hired to help me. My husband and I are still currently working on our marriage, but it would be a lot easier to put it behind me if it were not for that one constant (and aweful) reminder.
Is there anything that can be done criminally against her for knowingly exposing someone to her STD, and not telling them about it. I do not take away from my husband's part in this mess, but I do think she should be held accountable for consciously exposing others without warning. We now pay for meds for treatment, I am constantly depressed and anxious about having it and possibly spreading it to my children or students (I have read that it can be spread from one area of your body to another, making it easier to transmit to loved ones), and it is a constant reminder of what happened. Is she liable (criminally) for her part in what happened? Thank you in advance for your input.

 

[Michael Wechsler]

I haven't prosecuted a case such as you have but am sure it has been done before. I do know that there are several cases involving HIV and there are criminal laws and prosecution of those who have willfully infected others. I'm not sure such application would apply to herpes although one can definitely argue that it should. Other countries do have significant fines for transmitting the disease.

You could file a civil suit but there are issues to consider. Can she be located and does she have funds to pay? Remember that in civil cases you may also be subject to having your name printed for all to see.

Originally posted by stillhurting
About two years ago, my husband had a one night stand with someone associated with him through work. They had had a "flirtation" for about a year prior. Less than a month after, he HAD to tell me about it because he was diagnosed with genital herpes. When he confronted her about it, (she was the only person he had been with besides me for over 15 years), she apologized and said that she had "never given it to anyone before." Before he had found out about this "problem," he and I were intimate, and I also had been exposed to it and now live with it
I have never confronted her, because I could not find her- he would not give me information needed at the time, and I was ripped off by a "private investigator" whom I had hired to help me. My husband and I are still currently working on our marriage, but it would be a lot easier to put it behind me if it were not for that one constant (and aweful) reminder.
Is there anything that can be done criminally against her for knowingly exposing someone to her STD, and not telling them about it. I do not take away from my husband's part in this mess, but I do think she should be held accountable for consciously exposing others without warning. We now pay for meds for treatment, I am constantly depressed and anxious about having it and possibly spreading it to my children or students (I have read that it can be spread from one area of your body to another, making it easier to transmit to loved ones), and it is a constant reminder of what happened. Is she liable (criminally) for her part in what happened? Thank you in advance for your input.