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I'm employed by a Healthcare company with headquarters in Texas, but I'm assigned to and work everyday out of a field office in Louisiana. I pay Louisiana state income taxes.
Recently, I asked an applicant to take a drug screen as part of the company's screening process. We were interested in hiring her. She agreed and called her physician requesting he fax a list of her prescriptions to the Path Lab where the drug screen was scheduled. The Path Lab faxed me her drug screen results, which indicating a positive reaction to one of the controlled substances.
I discussed the drug screen results with the applicant and she was surprised because she thought the prescription list her physician faxed to the Path Lab would have explained a potential positive reaction. She left my office saying she was going to talk with her physician.
About two hours later, her physician called me at my office. He said that he had spoken with the applicant and reviewed the prescription list he faxed the Path Lab. As a result, he discovered he had submitted an incomplete list to the Path Lab. He stated he was correcting the list and would re-fax it. He asked me if I wanted him to fax a copy to me also. I told him faxing the list to the Path Lab was sufficient for company purposes. I didn't give him the company fax number and I never received a fax from him.
The phone conversation between the physician and myself was brief. It did not include any discussion or naming of medications included in his two lists. It was entirely procedural; he had an updated list, he was faxing it the Lab, did I want a fax also. No, I did not need a fax copy.
Three days later, I was called to Corporate and told I had violating HIPPA regulations. They said a complaint had been filed and I was being written up for it. No detailed explanation was given except the statement that I should not have talked to her physician. I was not asked or permitted to provide any details before receiving this disciplinary action.
My question, "Is this really a HIPPA violation?" I would appreciate an informed opinion.
Recently, I asked an applicant to take a drug screen as part of the company's screening process. We were interested in hiring her. She agreed and called her physician requesting he fax a list of her prescriptions to the Path Lab where the drug screen was scheduled. The Path Lab faxed me her drug screen results, which indicating a positive reaction to one of the controlled substances.
I discussed the drug screen results with the applicant and she was surprised because she thought the prescription list her physician faxed to the Path Lab would have explained a potential positive reaction. She left my office saying she was going to talk with her physician.
About two hours later, her physician called me at my office. He said that he had spoken with the applicant and reviewed the prescription list he faxed the Path Lab. As a result, he discovered he had submitted an incomplete list to the Path Lab. He stated he was correcting the list and would re-fax it. He asked me if I wanted him to fax a copy to me also. I told him faxing the list to the Path Lab was sufficient for company purposes. I didn't give him the company fax number and I never received a fax from him.
The phone conversation between the physician and myself was brief. It did not include any discussion or naming of medications included in his two lists. It was entirely procedural; he had an updated list, he was faxing it the Lab, did I want a fax also. No, I did not need a fax copy.
Three days later, I was called to Corporate and told I had violating HIPPA regulations. They said a complaint had been filed and I was being written up for it. No detailed explanation was given except the statement that I should not have talked to her physician. I was not asked or permitted to provide any details before receiving this disciplinary action.
My question, "Is this really a HIPPA violation?" I would appreciate an informed opinion.
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