I recently found out that my husbands exwife has filed for bankruptcy on bills that her and my husband had aquired during their marriage. All of said bills are in her name only, but because they were married he was ordered to pay half in monthly installments (directly to her not the creditor) until they were paid in full. My question is this, he should no longer have to pay these debts because she no longer owes them, am I right?
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Personal Bankruptcy Help
- Thread Starter MEKEASLER
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