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No, because in many cases the owner of record communicated some kind of objection one way or another but fell short of suing the other party, so they didn't stop the clock.

Permission was implicit in absence of any attempt to remove him or his stuff. Made explicit by the retroactive written permission.

She started using it five years ago. She never asked and I never said no. I didn't stop her nor put her on notice. I now give her retroactive permission. Not the same!

Yes, the idea being to take "adverse" out of the picture and avoid starting the clock in the past. Not trying to get any specific advice. Just wanting to know if anyone has ever heard of granting retroactive permission as a hedge against an adverse possession action. Ever, anywhere. Or if...

I asked the wrong question. Has anyone here heard of retroactively granting permission as a strategy to avoid adverse possesion? Your reply could be used as boilerplate here for ANY question ... and would render the forum useless.

First post here. If I find a neighbor encroaching on my rural property and believe it has been going on for a long time, would my retroactively granting permission be of any value in avoiding a possible adverse possession on the part of the neighbor? Thanks!