There's one time where he signed an agreement with a vendor and he put his title as "co-owner". He then emailed that contract to the vendor. Does that count? I mean, can he use that and fight with me in court stating that he should entitled to the 50% because of that?
I started a company (corporation) a year ago. Initially, a family friend helped me with the investment. He deposited some money into my business account and made charges for my business on his personal credit card. He also worked for the business and get paid. Anyhow, all his investment had...