Let me clarify a bit. The part that is in question is if it's legal to start FMLA after an employee has already been absent 50 days. My coworker is telling me that FMLA must start on the first day of absence. There is no issue with the pay.
I work for a company that is "employee friendly" when it comes to FMLA. A coworker of mine recently told me that one of my company's practices is illegal. They grant FMLA, but they allow the employee to use their paid leave (vacation/sick days), and then after that is exhausted, then they begin...